Bor pays lender religiously - a HIGHER pymt - probably had pymt auto-deduct - oh, did they mention from account at SAME F.I.? (lol) - and was probably in better financial position than when orig mortgage obtained.
Unless bor2 self-employed??
At any rate, where is the Risk if 50% equity there? Hard times.
Used to think keeping eggs together in one basket but no advantage in that now.
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