The obvious question is...If scheduled at a title company originally, the title company is expecting the notary to show up, correct? How does this not take place, the notary removes themselves and the client from going to the title office, and nobody from the title office, who has the room reserved for the closing call the signers, the notary to ask where they are?
Could be dozens of reasons for throwing this blame to the notary...BUT my senses tell me that's pretty far-fetched and covering themselves from something that happened or didn't in their office when it was supposed to.
As I see it when nobody showed up at the title on time, it's the title company's responsibility to pick up the phone, not wait with the "he said" stuff way after the fact. I couldn't find anything on a Texas A-6 loan that has to be signed at a title office, does it signed elsewhere make it fraudulent as claimed? IDK.
One notary's actions= worse for hundreds now...ok
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