I performed a signing the other day, and completed the entire signing in compliance with the instructions. It was a reverse, and the lenders instructions specifically stated only to have the signature line at the top of page one of the loan application signed if applicable. That is the signature line for the borrower to sign if they are intending to apply for joint credit, which the borrower was not.
Based on the direct, written instructions, and what that line is actually for, I did not have the borrower sign that line.
The post closing department has now reached out and stated that that signature has to be there, and that I am responsible for getting that completed. After speaking with the signing service, they agreed that it doesn't make sense, but that their client (the title company) says it has to be done. They also stated since only a scan is needed, that I can have the borrower sign his copy, and email it to me.
To me, I followed their instructions and now those instructions are being changed after the fact.
The problem is, this client is extremely difficult to get ahold of. He doesn't answer his phone, doesn't carry his cell phone, and doesn't respond to emails. He did call me yesterday and say he would call me when he is home to do it, but he has not done that yet.
Its also not really possible just to go to him to get this done either. He lives by himself in the middle of the foothills, on a ranch guarded by 15 dogs and did not want anyone coming to the house for the original signing, so we met at a pizza place 20 minutes from his house. The original signing was paid well enough for the trip for me, which was 45 minutes each way, but not enough to make a second trip for something that does not seem like an error, but rather the rules being changed after the fact.
Am I wrong for viewing it this way? Keep in mind, if this was an obvious error on my part, I wouldn't even be asking this question. But this doesn't seem like an error to me. |
