I have a problem with this scenario. If that was truly the case, wouldn't the title company just send the documents back to have the notary notarize them? It wouldn't change the fact that the borrowers signed them in front of the notary on that date, so there would be no back-dating involved. Please correct me if I'm wrong.
If; however, the notary had the borrower sign all documents except the ones needing notarizing, then it would involve having them to sign the notarized docs with current date and a total re-sign of all documents.
JMHO |