Posted by Anonymous on 2/23/05 10:22pm
Msg #22090

Silly question!

Example: If documents of non real estate nature are dated 01/02/05 and I get a call to notarize these on 02/18/05. I should have no problem as long as I date the certificate the date of notarization and signature. Am I correct? A letter went to a medical office in January but the doctor didn't call me till February to notarize them.

Reply by BrendaTX on 2/23/05 10:47pm
Msg #22095

If it is a Jurat the person has to sign the and swear to the document in your presence. So, if they have already signed and dated it, they really need to sign it again in front of you and take the oath if you are going by the book here in Texas. Maybe you can get a clean copy and start over. Things like that happen sometimes when the Custodian of Record does not have a notary and sends in the document without a notary's certificate.

If it is an ack the person can acknowledge that they signed it to the notary.

(Remember...I am in TEXAS)

Post your state and you'll get better response.

Reply by Anonymous/CA on 2/23/05 11:12pm
Msg #22104

Sorry I'm in California and it was an Acknowledgement.

Reply by Jon on 2/24/05 10:02am
Msg #22161

Brenda's answer is correct for CA also.