Posted by Barbara O on 3/18/06 12:59pm
Msg #106574

Non-borrowing spouse (m)

Ok, now I am in NH, so the non-borrowing spouse is required to sign the mortgage, etc. My question is this.. the paperwork is for a non-owner occupied home in Utah, with the owner(s) living in NH. The lady's husband's name is not on any of the paperwork, and I have no signature affidavit for him either. This may seem a silly question, but is his signature not required because in Utah this isn't necessary? Or is it because it is a non-owner occupied home? Or - do I make him sign the usual docs anyway and request a second signature affidavit from the company? Thanks in advance, I want all my ducks in a row before I go calling the title company about it.

Reply by Janlee_MI on 3/18/06 1:22pm
Msg #106576

If its Non owner occupy don't worry about it.

Reply by Barbara O on 3/18/06 1:26pm
Msg #106580

Well I called the title co and they are completely confused so they are having me print second copies of all the non-borrower forms. One copy just she will sign, one copy they both will sign. God am I glad it was a short signing to begin with.

Reply by PAW on 3/18/06 1:43pm
Msg #106594

What a waste of time and effort. Since the property is not in the owner's residence state, and not owner occupied, I am going to assume that this is either a vacation home or investment property. In either case, unless both spouses are on title, usually only the legal owner has to sign. I'm sure the title search was completed and the lender is aware of who's on title and how title is held and prepared the documents accordingly. I wouldn't have given the NOBS as second thought on this one. If the NOBS has to be on the mtg/DOT, then the lender can straighten it with title later.

I certainly hope you got duly compensated for the third set of docs and time spent.

Reply by Joan_OH on 3/18/06 4:58pm
Msg #106648

not always so.

I do a lot of investment property purchases and refi's in OHIO. If the property is owned personally and there is financing, the spouse signs dowers. If the property is in a business name, dowers are not necessary. Not sure how out of state property would change this although I did sign for a CA property where the spouse was absolutely not to sign.

I would call title, get their input and do as they say. If they are wrong, get paid for going out again. If title couldn't be reached, I would make copies of the dower docs, do it both ways and when title can be reached, let them decide which ones you shred.

Anyways, I wouldn't worry about having things in order before I called title. I would think title would appreciate the call when it "just doesn't seem right" because a lot of times, it isn't.

Joan-OH

Reply by BrendaTx on 3/18/06 1:37pm
Msg #106591

Barbara - I did not answer this question because I don't know anything about NH or Utah. Just Texas. However, what does the (m) mean? Married? Male? I just got up...maybe I am missing it.

Reply by Barbara O on 3/18/06 2:18pm
Msg #106602

oh, I'm sorry. (m) = more. As in there was more to the topic than jsut non-borrowing spouse Thanks for repyling.