Reply by GA/Atty on 2/15/08 4:35pm Msg #235520
In my opinion, when he signs the owner occupancy paperwork, he is telling you that he does occupy the encumbered property as a primary residence. I think it would take a LOT of very specific evidence for you to conclude with any certainty that he was engaging in fraud, regardless of whether the place of closing looks like a home or not.
Hard for me to imagine being able to tell with enough certainty to make an issue of it.
|
Reply by Les_CO on 2/15/08 4:35pm Msg #235521
Well I’ve done signings at Dennys, Mc Donald’s, Starbucks, etc. I’m pretty sure the borrowers didn’t own them. Not your business. If the borrower swears to the owner occupancy affidavit. It’s entirely on them.
|
Reply by Ernest__CT on 2/18/08 3:20pm Msg #235857
Well, there are several ways to look at it.
As others have said, it's not your call. You administer the oath, they swear, they sign. You're done. That's it for occupied / non-occupied.
If, on the other hand, someone wants to swear that, in New Your City the sun shines brightly at 1:30 AM, then you've got a legitimate problem. You know that they're lying under oath. In that kind of black-and-white situation, I'd remind them that they were under oath. If they still swore that the clearly-false statement was true, I'd refuse the notarization.
Remember, we're not detectives, we're Notaries Public.
|