Posted by Ali/IL on 6/4/09 8:55pm Msg #291195
For Illinois agents
I had a closing which was a va owner occupied. Borrower was married. The loan officer insisted that the spouse didn't have to sign the legals. I said that I was sure that he did have to. I called the title company and, was told to add the spouse to the legal docs.
I get confused sometimes as to if spouse should sign legals if they are not on title.
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Reply by Pat/IL on 6/4/09 9:21pm Msg #291199
If, as you say, the property is owner-occupied (homestead property) then the spouse has homestead rights. The (non-borrowing, non-titled) spouse needs to sign the mortgage to waive the homestead rights. As for as the RTC and TIL, the same rules would appply to a VA loan as any other.
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Reply by Kay/IL on 6/4/09 9:51pm Msg #291205
Here's a rule of thumb of what must be signed when you come across a loan with a non-borrowing spouse:
Think TRIM
T- Truth in Lending R- Right to Cancel I- Itemization of Amount Financed M- Mortgage
Those are the 4 documents that MUST be signed by a non-borrowing spouse whenever you come across that situation.
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Reply by Ali/IL on 6/4/09 10:10pm Msg #291208
That's a good one I will keep it in mind.
I had the loan officer standing there and saying no the spouse doesn't have to sign the legal docs.It is not required in Illinois. I was surprised because this is a loan officer that I know is good.
When I first questioned him about the spouse he acted nervous like maybe he purposely kept him out.
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Reply by Ali/IL on 6/4/09 10:34pm Msg #291210
Another question
When a spouse is not disclosed and you believe that there is a spouse do you suggest to them that the spouse has to sign legal docs? Would that be overstepping your bounds?
I had one where two brothers had wives and didn't tell anyone. I was asked to go back and have the wives sign.They didn't want to pay for a second trip.
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Reply by Pat/IL on 6/5/09 9:56am Msg #291292
Re: Another question
Ali, if the wives occupied the property as their primary residence, they would need to sign.
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Reply by Kay/IL on 6/5/09 12:59pm Msg #291324
More Information
Illinois IS a SPOUSAL STATE. As long as the non-borrowing spouse has homestead rights with the property in question, in addition to the TIL, RTC, Itemization and Mtg, the non-borrowing spouse also signs the HUD, owners affidavit and title documents.
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Reply by Pat/IL on 6/5/09 1:20pm Msg #291326
Re: More Information
That's not correct, Kay. The spouse would only sign the title affidavits if (s)he holds title to the property (check with the title agent). The non-borrowing spouse normally does not need to sign the HUD unless at lender's request.
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Reply by Cari on 6/5/09 5:04pm Msg #291395
agree with you Kay... n/m
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Reply by BrendaTx on 6/5/09 7:22am Msg #291232
Re: For Illinois agents - I've asked this Question before...
never got an answer, exactly.
Is there *any* state where the borrower's spouse does not have to sign the DoT/mortgage, RTC and TIL when it is a loan on primary homestead?
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Reply by Bob_Chicago on 6/5/09 7:41am Msg #291235
Each state's laws determine IF a spouse has an....
interest in a parcel of real estate where one spouse is in title and the other is not. If state law dictates that the NBS has an interest in the property then the NBS must evidence there intent to let their interest in the property be subject to the lien of the loan made to the BS. This intent can be evidenced by the NBS signing the mortgage or a separate insturment consenting to the lien Federal law dictates that any party with an interest in the property must be given 2 copies of a RTC and and a TIL, to commence their 3 day RTC. Not legal advice yada yada.
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Reply by BrendaTx on 6/5/09 8:10am Msg #291249
Right, Bob...but
*If state law dictates that the NBS has an interest in the property then the NBS must evidence there intent to let their interest in the property be subject to the lien of the loan made to the BS.*
Just once I'd love to see someone say "NO. That's not required in my state." Until I see it I'll figure that it's pretty much an across the board given.
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Reply by Linda_H/FL on 6/5/09 8:23am Msg #291255
Re: Right, Bob...but...Brenda...
Up until 3 years ago when I left, CT didn't require it - one spouse owned, one spouse signed...
Not sure if that's changed since I left.
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Reply by BrendaTx on 6/5/09 8:29am Msg #291257
Thanks, Linda...that's what I'm talking about! :) n/m
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Reply by MikeC/NY on 6/5/09 12:14pm Msg #291315
Re: Right, Bob...but...Brenda...
Works the same way in NY, as far as I know - if one spouse owns, only that spouse signs. I've been on a number of signings where only one spouse had an interest in the property, and it was the primary residence.
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Reply by PAW on 6/5/09 1:49pm Msg #291332
In FL, depends ...
FL is not a community property state. FL is a homestead state, but not all primary residences qualify for homestead. Therefore, a husband and wife can have a primary residence that is not homestead protected and if only one spouse is on title, then only that spouse needs to sign the docs if they are the only ones obligated. However, there has been case law and by probate law, wherein the spouse, though not on title and property not homesteaded, is deemed to have the right to the property in the case of the death of the other spouse. Florida's probate laws are very strict in that regard.
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