Posted by hodgy on 1/19/13 9:22am
Msg #451163

Initialing when a client is the 3rd

Example, John R. Doe, III


Does he initial JRD or JRD, III ?

Reply by SOCAL/CA on 1/19/13 9:28am
Msg #451165

Intial: JRD, III

Reply by hodgy on 1/19/13 9:30am
Msg #451166

Thanks

Reply by SReis on 1/19/13 9:40am
Msg #451171

IMO it doesnt matter. I never given specific instructions

re: initialing unless title/lender is very specific on it which is almost 99% never the case. As long as they are initialing some variation of what their name is I am not going to question it. Just my .02

Reply by Marian_in_CA on 1/19/13 12:21pm
Msg #451181

To me, it doesn't matter unless the leaner/title escrow has given specific instructions, which I then point out to them. Otherwise, I simply say, "Initial" and leave it at that. NEver had a propblem

I find it interesting because I, personally, have an "initial" that is like a mini signature to me. If anybody asks me to initial something, I always do it the same way, no matter what. I won't vary it because some arbitrary desk jockey gets a muscle tick if *MY* initialing isn't to their standards. I mean, it's *MY* mark... as long at I make it, it's sufficient. Plus, I do it that way for a reason... it is unique and I would be able to tell right away if somebody tried to initial something for me.

Maybe it's just me, but I do not like anyone telling me how to signing my name, so I never insist on it with anyone, either. Oh, sure I will always point out or pass on requests, but I never start threatening people or tell them wild stories about their loans not funding, etc, as I have heard some notaries do. It's about being polite and maintaining an independent position.

Reply by hodgy on 1/19/13 12:37pm
Msg #451185

I appreciate everyone's input and I agree with you Marian and especially on the signature - a person's signature is their "mark" or "seal" and why should I advise them to alter it to satisfy the documents so I just ask "does that signature represent the name as printed.

Reply by JanetK_CA on 1/20/13 2:20am
Msg #451289

In theory, I also agree. However, in practice, I HAVE had a lender require a redraw because a person didn't sign their full-name-as-typed, even though she insisted that she "never" signs her name that way. Fortunately, I had her sign a note saying that she had been advised to sign her middle initial, etc.

Reply by hodgy on 1/20/13 6:14am
Msg #451291

That is interesting and I wondered if that would ever happen. So are you saying on the redraw you had her sign the note or on the original signing? Also, did she on the redraw sign with the middle initial?

Reply by JanetK_CA on 1/20/13 6:09pm
Msg #451312

At the first signing, I advised her that her loan might not fund if she refused to sign her initials. (She had rather neat, legible handwriting, so it was a clear omission. I wrote out a note restating what I had advised her, asked her if it correctly reflected our conversation and asked her to sign it. (BTW, I was very careful to not be confrontational about it, so all our interaction was pleasant.)

When I went back the next day to have her re-sign everything, she contritely signed with her middle initial - and I got paid two full fees. (I believe there had been some discussion with her LO in the interim - which she hadn't wanted to do the day before.) Fortunately for her, both were lunch-time appointments, so docs went out the same day and the problem was discovered quickly - and corrected quickly - avoiding any rate lock issues.