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Posted by  VT_Syrup on 7/26/14 5:20pm
It depends on the exact wording of the law. If the law makes it illegal to solicit a notary to perform a notarial act, "knowing that act to be an improper notarial act", as CA's law says, then there is no violation unless the requester KNOWS the act is improper. Just because a notary tells the requester that the act is improper does not mean the requester knows it is improper; the requester might not believe the notary. If the requester trust his/her boss who he/she has known for years, and the boss says it's OK, why should the requester believe some notary the requester never heard of until a few hours ago? Good luck to any prosecutor who wants to prove the requester KNEW the act was improper. |
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